My understanding was that hyphenation referred to the genre (via Philip French’s Westerns: Aspects of  Movie Genre) but that the single word ‘postwestern' referred to the critical orientation (via, among other studies, Susan Kollin’s Postwestern Cultures: Literature, Theory, Space). French’s post- more literally connotes chronology. Kollin et al.’s also maybe ends up connoting a chronology but intends to link up to other critical cultural studies and also more of the Derridian play on “post-” (as in French play on ‘poste’ as postal). But I’m reading through some reception here and may also not have it exactly right.

Best wishes,

Eric Morel
Graduate Student
Department of English
University of Washington
Box 354330
Seattle, WA 98195-4330
Phone: 425-466-9104
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On Nov 24, 2014, at 2:43 PM, Drucilla Wall <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

Hi everyone,

As I see it, if the term refers to the movies or the book genre, then it is post-Western. The capital letter identifies it as specific to those forms and not a general term for the region or the civilization. Does that make sense?


Date: Mon, 24 Nov 2014 15:22:33 -0700
From: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: post? west
To: [log in to unmask]

or Post-Hollywood Westerns

On Mon, Nov 24, 2014 at 3:19 PM, Tom Lynch <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
An editor's question: 

postwestern or 
post-western, or

And why?

Tom Lynch
Chair, Undergraduate Studies
Editor, Western American Literature
Department of English
202 Andrews Hall
P.O. Box 880333
University of Nebraska, Lincoln
Lincoln, NE  68588-0333
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