My understanding was that hyphenation referred to the genre (via Philip French’s Westerns: Aspects of Movie Genre) but that the single word ‘postwestern' referred to the critical orientation (via, among other studies, Susan Kollin’s Postwestern Cultures: Literature, Theory, Space). French’s post- more literally connotes chronology. Kollin et al.’s also maybe ends up connoting a chronology but intends to link up to other critical cultural studies and also more of the Derridian play on “post-” (as in French play on ‘poste’ as postal). But I’m reading through some reception here and may also not have it exactly right.
Department of English
University of Washington
Seattle, WA 98195-4330
As I see it, if the term refers to the movies or the book genre, then it is post-Western. The capital letter identifies it as specific to those forms and not a general term for the region or the civilization. Does that make sense?